1) Can you show one, uncontested, immersion in the Bible which is called a “baptism”? In other words, the mode must be immersion and it cannot be reasonably and exegetically read another way, particularly once one compares Scripture with Scripture. 2) Are you aware of the numerous “sprinkling” and/or “pouring” “baptisms” throughout the Bible? In other words, these cannot be read in any other was as to mode of baptism than that these baptism were done by sprinkling and/or pouring. And, 3), How do you read the 4 “baptisms” (actually identified as such) of the children of believers that are cited in the NT (e.g. Acts 2:16-21; 1 Corinthians 10:1-4; Col. 2:11-12 w/ 3:20; 1 Pet. 3:20-21) which make no mention of the children having repented? These passages seem very consistent with how God dealt with and viewed the children of His people in the OT (e.g. Gen. 17:9-10) and with how He still views them today (e.g. Lk. 10:21; 18:15-17; Acts 2:39; 16:14-15; 30-34; 1 Cor. 7:14; etc.)

How would you read Matthew 28:20? Does the Church also have the right to teach its people to observe things that Christ hasn’t commanded?