You will find the correct understanding at:

http://colossians.freeforums.net/board/38/all-israel-shall-saved

I understand that First Thessalonians was written in about 51 AD; that is about 18 to 20 years after the crucifixion of Jesus (depending on when one dates the crucifixion). In First Thessalonians, the Apostle Paul, speaking by the Holy Spirit, said of the Jews: “They are not pleasing to God, but hostile to all men…” Perhaps Paul reached that conclusion because, as he put it (in the next verse), the Jews were “hindering us from speaking to the Gentiles so that they may be saved.” How long did this remain true of the Jews? Was it still true of the Jews 50 years after Paul wrote it? How about 100 years after? 1000 years after? How about today? If not, then what changed? Did Jews in general stop opposing the Gospel or do they generally persist in that endeavor even to our day?

[Aside: It is also noteworthy that Paul had no compunction about speaking about “the Jews” in this broad sweeping way, despite the fact that he knew that not every last Jew fit into this characterization. Speaking this way today…even simply quoting this would get one labeled as Anti-Semitic. That’s one of the reasons I never bring this verse up.]

Thank you for a clarifying episode. I am finishing up my undergrad at Moody Bible Institute here in Chicago. This topic is a point of contention there.

I will say, though, you forgot to mention my dear elder’s book! Rob McKenzie’s “Identifying the Seed” being much more recent than Poythress’s book on the subject, should share good insight, too. Dispensationalism has developed a lot in the last 30 years.

Again, wonderful episode. I found it helpful to better clarify where I fall with these views.